eslHQ

eslHQ (http://www.eslhq.com/forums/)
-   English Questions (http://www.eslhq.com/forums/esl-forums/english-questions/)
-   -   Does GET USED TO always take a direct object with it or not? (http://www.eslhq.com/forums/esl-forums/english-questions/does-get-used-always-take-direct-object-not-68769/)

THE APPRENTICE Mar 22nd, 2014 06:09 pm

Does GET USED TO always take a direct object with it or not?
 
Dear teachers and members:


I have learned that BE USED TO must be followed by a noun of a verb in its gerund form, but I have noticed that when BE USED TO is followed by a noun, it takes it as a direct objec, and when it is followed by a tverb in its gerund form, it takes a direct object most of the time or all of the time.

1) I'm used to dominican food (Noun)
1a) I'm used to eating dominican food. (Verb)

2) She is used to a lonely life
2b) She's used to living alone. (Verb)

3) They're used to New York lifestyle.
3c) they're used to living in New York.

4) He's used to lies
4d) He's used to lying (to others)

I find that in the below quote a direct object is needed in order to complete its meaning, or something is incorrect.

''Changes only happen when we go against everything we're used to doing''.

PAULO COELHO.


QUESTIONS.

1°) Is it the 4d sentence correct?

2°) Does the 4d sentence need a direct object?

3°) Is there something ungrammatical in the Paulo Coelho's quote?


Please, your help and assistance will be deeply appreciated.

Bazza6 Sep 10th, 2014 04:15 am

Re: Does GET USED TO always take a direct object with it or not?
 
Forget your sentences for a moment. You need to go back to basics.
A gerund is a noun formed from a verb. But it acts and functions as a noun, never as a verb. You are confusing the use of a gerund where its function as a noun is emphasised:
"The building on the corner of Elm and Ash Streets was demolished."

and where its origin…origin, not function…origin as a verb is emphasised:
"The building of new highways is our top priority."

You write:
"I have learned that BE USED TO must be followed by a noun of a verb in its gerund form." I presume you meant to write: "...by a noun OR a verb in its gerund form…"
Of a gerund, that is like saying of a man: this is 44 year old Paul, a boy in his man's body.
It doesn't make sense.

In your sentences:
1) I'm used to dominican food (Noun)
1a) I'm used to eating dominican food. (Verb)
(1) is a shortened form of (1a)! Take out 'used to' and you get:
1a. I am eating dominican food
Do that with (1) and you get:
I am dominican food (!!!)
(1) "I am used to dominican food" is shortened from "I am used to eating dominican food."
And what is implicit is the full sentence:
I am used to the eating of dominican food.


All times are GMT -5. The time now is 02:21 am.

Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.6.8
Copyright ©2000 - 2019, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
Content Relevant URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2