Mar 22nd, 2014, 06:09 pm
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Join Date: Jan 30th, 2014
| | Does GET USED TO always take a direct object with it or not?
Dear teachers and members:
I have learned that BE USED TO must be followed by a noun of a verb in its gerund form, but I have noticed that when BE USED TO is followed by a noun, it takes it as a direct objec, and when it is followed by a tverb in its gerund form, it takes a direct object most of the time or all of the time.
1) I'm used to dominican food (Noun)
1a) I'm used to eating dominican food. (Verb)
2) She is used to a lonely life
2b) She's used to living alone. (Verb)
3) They're used to New York lifestyle.
3c) they're used to living in New York.
4) He's used to lies
4d) He's used to lying (to others)
I find that in the below quote a direct object is needed in order to complete its meaning, or something is incorrect.
''Changes only happen when we go against everything we're used to doing''.
1°) Is it the 4d sentence correct?
2°) Does the 4d sentence need a direct object?
3°) Is there something ungrammatical in the Paulo Coelho's quote?
Please, your help and assistance will be deeply appreciated.
Last edited by THE APPRENTICE : Mar 23rd, 2014 at 01:03 am.